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gavel.jpgWherein you, the readers, talk amongst yourselves.

There's a movement afoot to ban the word "rape" from rape trials. For example, an alleged victim might be forced to refer to the act between her and an alleged rapist simply as "sexual intercourse." Your thoughts?

Comments (18)

No. 1 · *M*

As someone who wants to make their career as an advocate of victims of rape and other forms of violence against women, words can not begin to describe how angry this makes me.

Posted: Jun 9, 2008 at 6:08 pm
No. 2 · Nichelle

Dead wrong!

Non-consensual, FORCED sexual intercourse is called rape and it should remain as such. Anything less is purposely lessening the impact of the vile act that occurred.

Posted: Jun 9, 2008 at 6:09 pm
No. 3 · *M*

There are so many things wrong with the "Anonymous" said on the site, and the sad thing is, thats how many people misinterpret rape

Posted: Jun 9, 2008 at 6:28 pm
No. 4 · orchid921

This only makes it easier for rapists (yeah, I said it!) to get away with their crimes in court. It makes me sick.

Posted: Jun 9, 2008 at 6:33 pm
No. 5 · Anon

Hell to the naw!!!!!

Posted: Jun 9, 2008 at 6:37 pm
No. 6 · Chic Noir

No, the term “rape” should be used. Sexual intercourse makes it sound as if the act was consensual.

I read a statistic somewhere that only 13% of rape cases brought to trial(?) result in a conviction. It is 6 percent in England.

I can imagine that the rate of conviction for trials where men are the victims of rape is below 1%.

Posted: Jun 9, 2008 at 6:55 pm
No. 7 · kjen

Does the court feel that "rape" is too much of a loaded word?

Ooookkkkaaayyyy, so how about "forced sexual intercourse"?

Much better.

Posted: Jun 9, 2008 at 7:15 pm
No. 8 · Anonymiss

This is foolishness. "Rape" is a recognized legal term. How dare he insensitively suggest that she refer to the crime as "sexual intercourse." The judge needs to be checked.

Posted: Jun 9, 2008 at 9:48 pm
No. 9 · ilnazhad

My first thought was that this is an abomination.
But after ruminating, I realized that the diction does not favor the defendant. This change favors the truth.
If the prosecutors use the word "rape" before the verdict, they are pretending to have already reached a legal conclusion. The jury is easily swayed by this sort of rhetoric. The term "sexual intercourse" does not mean that it was mutual or that it was rape, so the decision is not rigged.
The witnesses should give a factual description of the occurences (For example, "I yelled for help. He held a knife to my neck and said that if I move he will kill me. Then he inserted himself in me."). After both sides give their story, the jury should decide whether there was consent or not.
And if the jury charge the defendant, then the term "rape" should begin to be used.

Posted: Jun 9, 2008 at 10:26 pm
No. 10 · RhymesWithSilver

First off, I think this judge is muddying the water- would he declare a mistrial if someone's testimony included the word "rape"? Granted, "rape" is a loaded word, and the issue at hand has nothing to do with the comfort of the victim or how likely they are to come forward in the first place and everything to do with the due process of law. But does the judge have a viable alternative, and does he think it would be easy to change a society's entire understanding of these cases? I don't like "intercourse" here, because it's simply too vague. Rape isn't an act of "intercourse" on many levels. Maybe "penetration" would be better in court, but not much better.

Posted: Jun 9, 2008 at 10:36 pm
No. 11 · daria from Gorgeous Black Women

f-ry

intercourse simply implies that two consenting adults were involved. it trivializes the… um… raping bit.

Posted: Jun 10, 2008 at 4:20 am
No. 12 · Josh

lol, how about "overly passionate love-making" or "force-fucking"? who comes up with this shit?

Posted: Jun 10, 2008 at 4:36 am
No. 13 · The Cruel Secretary

As a woman who survived a rape when I was five, I abso-fucking-lutely not OK with the court wanting to euphemize people being sexually violated. Not using the word "rape" erases the violence and, by extension, the lack of consent involved when the perpetrater inflicted him/herself on the other person. As daria concisely stated, "intercouse simply implies that two consenting adults were involved." There is no consent in rape, period.

Judges hear and sentence people who do some heinous crimes that have ugly, uncomfortable terms, too. But they want to get squemish about the word "rape?" Nope, not acceptable.

Posted: Jun 10, 2008 at 11:18 am
No. 14 · lunanoire

The charge is rape, just as ohter charged crimes could be robbery, battery, etc. Whether a person is guilty of that charge is for the court to decide

Posted: Jun 10, 2008 at 12:46 pm
No. 15 · J

Cosign, lunanoire. They don't call it 'car borrowing' until you're found guilty of grand theft auto.

Posted: Jun 10, 2008 at 2:34 pm
No. 16 · moodygemini

Only someone who has not experienced rape whether personally or via someone in their life could begin to think this is acceptable. I feel the need to slap the sh@t out of whoever started this movement. When I have sexual intercourse it is MY choice. A rape takes choice out of the equation. Your only choice is how to survive.

Posted: Jun 11, 2008 at 12:24 am
No. 17 · geerussell

Using the word rape to offer a legal conclusion undermines the presumption of innocence for the defendant. The emotionally charged nature of a rape case doesn't take away the standing of this core right.

Change the context to something else, murder for instance, and it's clearly wrong for a witness to testify to a legal conclusion "He murdered that man!" vs. saying "He raised his gun and fired three shots, hitting the man in the chest."

Yet, in a rape trial it's somehow wrong to restrict testimony to a clear recounting of facts?

Posted: Jun 11, 2008 at 10:50 am
No. 18 · Kandee

R Kelly is jumping up and down!

Posted: Jun 14, 2008 at 3:09 pm
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